i think it has to do that mathematics are a matter of our ideas, which
could
always change simply by adopting new ideas.
but thats my opinion, not kant's
<malenoid@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> wrote in message
news:a945fd5e-97ac-473a-82c5-5c9b6533406b@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> On Feb 19, 11:57 am, "Phil Roberts, Jr." <phil...@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>
> wrote:
>> malen...@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
wrote:
>> > On Feb 18, 2:19 am, "Phil Roberts, Jr." <phil...@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>
wrote:
>>
>> >>It has been many years since I've read the Critique of Pure
>> >>Reason, and perhaps I am misrembering, but I was always
>> >>perplexed by Kant's insistence that 1 + 1 = 2 is a
>> >>synthetic proposition. If an analytic proposition is
>> >>simply one that is true by denfintion, e.g.,
>> >>all unmarried men are bachelors, wouldn't 1 plus 1
>> >>equals 2 be in this category as well?
>>
>> > Is '1 + 1 = 2' the definition of something?
>>
>> I'm aasuming that 2 can be construed as 1 + 1 by definition.
>>
>> Phil
>>
>> --
>>
>> Phil Roberts, Jr.http://www.rationology.net
>>
>> .
>
> Maybe its definition is 1.5 + .5 or 1.9 + .1.
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