On Feb 19, 11:57 am, "Phil Roberts, Jr." <phil...@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>
wrote:
> malen...@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
wrote:
> > On Feb 18, 2:19 am, "Phil Roberts, Jr." <phil...@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> wrote:
>
> >>It has been many years since I've read the Critique of Pure
> >>Reason, and perhaps I am misrembering, but I was always
> >>perplexed by Kant's insistence that 1 + 1 = 2 is a
> >>synthetic proposition. If an analytic proposition is
> >>simply one that is true by denfintion, e.g.,
> >>all unmarried men are bachelors, wouldn't 1 plus 1
> >>equals 2 be in this category as well?
>
> > Is '1 + 1 = 2' the definition of something?
>
> I'm aasuming that 2 can be construed as 1 + 1 by definition.
>
> Phil
>
> --
>
> Phil Roberts, Jr.http://www.rationology.net
>
> .
Maybe its definition is 1.5 + .5 or 1.9 + .1.
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