malenoid@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
wrote:
> On Feb 18, 2:19 am, "Phil Roberts, Jr." <phil...@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> wrote:
>
>>It has been many years since I've read the Critique of Pure
>>Reason, and perhaps I am misrembering, but I was always
>>perplexed by Kant's insistence that 1 + 1 = 2 is a
>>synthetic proposition. If an analytic proposition is
>>simply one that is true by denfintion, e.g.,
>>all unmarried men are bachelors, wouldn't 1 plus 1
>>equals 2 be in this category as well?
>>
> Is '1 + 1 = 2' the definition of something?
>
I'm aasuming that 2 can be construed as 1 + 1 by definition.
Phil
--
Phil Roberts, Jr.
http://www.rationology.net
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