On Feb 18, 2:19 am, "Phil Roberts, Jr." <phil...@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> wrote:
> It has been many years since I've read the Critique of Pure
> Reason, and perhaps I am misrembering, but I was always
> perplexed by Kant's insistence that 1 + 1 = 2 is a
> synthetic proposition. If an analytic proposition is
> simply one that is true by denfintion, e.g.,
> all unmarried men are bachelors, wouldn't 1 plus 1
> equals 2 be in this category as well?
>
> --
Is '1 + 1 = 2' the definition of something?
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