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Professions > Philosophy Kant > Re: Not Knowing...
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Re: Not Knowing A Thing In Itself = Typical Contradicting Kantian Stupidity.

by Michael Gordge <mikegordge@[EMAIL PROTECTED] > Sep 6, 2007 at 11:14 PM

On Sep 7, 1:19 pm, Immortalist <reanimater_2...@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> wrote:

> This thing-in-itself and things-
> as-they-appear is a statement about the difference between appearance
> and reality.

Crap, it originates from Kant claiming, and in the very first
paragraph of his Pure Unadulterated Destruction Of Reason (PUDOR) that
even though, he claims, [sic].. "that ALL of man's knowledge begins
with exprience of that there is no doubt", Kant then claims and in the
same ****ing paragraph, except man's knowledge of time, which Kant
claims, man's knowledge of time does not originate from objects
awakening his senses and then the dopey git claims that all of man's
knowledge begins with time.

In one paragraph (as he does right throughout his PUDOR) he jumps from
epistemology to metaphysics and thereby equates them with each other.
In other words Kant gives time the same meaning as water, air and
consciousness, ALL of which are required for man to have knowledge of
ALL things.


Michael Gordge
 




 1 Posts in Topic:
Re: Not Knowing A Thing In Itself = Typical Contradicting Kantia
Michael Gordge <mikego  2007-09-06 23:14:02 

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tan12V112 Sat Nov 22 12:42:41 CST 2008.